One tends to become endlessly trapped in a sterile, false dichotomy between, on the one hand, the "medical model of mental illness", and on the other hand, a denial that there is any specific kind of problem here - other than the problems caused by doctors and their drugs, which are indeed numerous and serious. I gave up months ago even trying to talk about it ("'It'? What's 'it'?" - etc.), and I don't like saying even this much. However, the question that is the title of this thread is not meaningless, even though the presupposition of the medical model appears to be contained in the language which it is forced to use. There are bad things to be prevented (e.g. I spent 4 consecutive days just before Christmas thinking obsessively about suicide, including planning physical details of an attempt, which I have scarcely done in 30 years - and no-one should ever feel like that, regardless of any conception of "illness" or anything else). And one of the main obstacles to their prevention is the medical model. I refrained from saying this initially! But it was implied in the passage I chose to quote. That passage also contains a much preferable phrase, "the illness model of mental and emotional disorder" - although even that phrase, or anything like it, can lead to endless, sterile, heated, bad-tempered arguments, here in this forum or anywhere else.I know what you mean the boundaries are not clear even with psychosis, but having gone mad I have had some unhealthy beliefs which I wish I hadn't. It's not always so clear though and culturally bound (a large problem in general with diagnoses).